$\"\"$

Suppose $\"\"$ is continuous on $\"\"$ and $\"\"$ .

By the definition of imprpoper integrals of type 1:

$\"\"$

$\"\"$ .

Integral result tends to infinity.

Therefore $\"\"$ is divergent by improper integrals definition.

It is not possibe that $\"\"$ is convergent

$\"\"$

No, it is not possibe that $\"\"$ is convergent.